NIOS Biology 314 — PE PYQ Bank (full answers)

118 exclusive PE questions with model answers. Same content on each chapter PYQ tab.

L2 L3 L5 L7 L10 L11 L12 L15 L17 L19 L21 L22 L23 L25 L28 L30 L31

L2 — The Kingdoms Monera, Protoctista and Fungi 3

Application / Analysis

Q1. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of a mushroom

Spell-checked HD: pileus, gills, annulus, stipe, mycelium.
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD: pileus, gills, annulus, stipe, mycelium.
Answer: Diagram of mushroom (Agaricus): underground mycelium of hyphae; stipe (stalk); annulus (ring); pileus (cap); gills on underside of pileus with basidia producing spores. Label: mycelium, stipe, annulus, pileus, gills.

Why it clicks: Mushroom is the fruiting body of a basidiomycete fungus (Kingdom Fungi). Marks go to neat labels of cap, stalk, gills and underground mycelium.

Understanding

Q2. What are the four nutritional categories found in bacteria?

Answer: Four nutritional categories of bacteria: (1) Photoautotrophs — use light + CO₂ (e.g. cyanobacteria). (2) Chemoautotrophs — oxidise inorganic chemicals for energy (e.g. Nitrosomonas). (3) Photoheterotrophs — light energy but organic carbon. (4) Chemoheterotrophs — organic compounds for energy and carbon (most pathogens, decomposers).

Why it clicks: Bacteria span all four modes—unlike animals which are only chemoheterotrophs. Exam often lists these four names.

Application / Analysis

Q3. Why cyanobacteria is included in Monera?

Answer: Cyanobacteria are prokaryotic: no true nucleus or membrane-bound organelles; peptidoglycan cell wall; unicellular or colonial. Whittakers Monera = all prokaryotes. Even though they photosynthesize with chlorophyll, cell structure places them in Monera, not Plantae.

Why it clicks: Photosynthesis alone does not make a plant—prokaryotic cell organisation decides Monera.

L3 — Kingdoms Plantae and Animalia 7

Application / Analysis

Q1. What does the following sequence represent? Blue-green algae → Crustose lichens → Foliose lichens Dicotyledonous trees ← Shrubs ← Mosses

(A) Genetic drift
(B) Ecological succession
(C) A food pyramid
(D) Phylogenetic trend
Answer: (B) Ecological succession

Why it clicks: Pioneer community (blue-green algae/lichens) → mosses → shrubs → trees is primary succession on bare substrate.

Recall

Q2. Cephalothorax is a characteristic feature present in the phylum

(A) Echinodermata
(B) Mollusca
(C) Arthropoda
(D) Annelida
Answer: (C) Arthropoda

Why it clicks: Cephalothorax = fused head + thorax, classic of many arthropods (e.g. prawn, spider).

Recall

Q3. Which of the following is an example of an oviparous mammal?

(A) Kangaroo
(B) Duck-billed platypus
(C) Whale
(D) Bat
Answer: (B) Duck-billed platypus

Why it clicks: Monotreme mammal that lays eggs (oviparous). Kangaroo/whale/bat are viviparous.

Understanding

Q4. How will you distinguish between the vascular bundles of a dicot root and a dicot stem?

Answer: Dicot root: xylem radial/exarch; no pith or small pith; vascular bundles alternate xylem–phloem. Dicot stem: vascular bundles conjoint, collateral, open (cambium), arranged in a ring; pith large; endarch xylem. Root = radial arrangement; stem = ring of conjoint bundles.

Why it clicks: Compare arrangement (radial vs ring) and presence of cambium/pith—high-yield anatomy difference.

Recall

Q5. Which one of the following represent the gametophyte of fern?

(A) Indusium
(B) Sorus
(C) Prothallus
(D) Frond
Answer: (C) Prothallus

Why it clicks: Fern gametophyte is the small green heart-shaped prothallus. Frond/sorus belong to sporophyte.

Application / Analysis

Q6. Maize is a monocot plant. Give any two valid reasons for considering of so. m

Answer: Maize as monocot — any two: (1) single cotyledon; (2) parallel leaf venation; (3) fibrous root system; (4) scattered vascular bundles in stem; (5) floral parts in threes. Habitat structural components (diagram): biotic (producers, consumers, decomposers) + abiotic (soil, water, climate, light). Immigration increases population density; emigration decreases it.

Why it clicks: Monocot checklist + habitat = biotic + abiotic; migration changes N by adding/removing individuals.

Application / Analysis

Q7. Draw a neat labelled diagram of a V.S. of a monocot leaf and label the following parts: a) xylem b) phloem c) Bundle sheath d) Bulliform cells e) Mesophyll tissue f) Vascular bundle

Spell-checked HD: upper/lower epidermis, bulliform, xylem, phloem, bundle sheath.
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD: upper/lower epidermis, bulliform, xylem, phloem, bundle sheath.
Answer: V.S. monocot leaf labels: upper/lower epidermis; mesophyll (often not differentiated into palisade/spongy as in dicot, or poorly so); vascular bundle with xylem (towards upper) and phloem (towards lower); bundle sheath around VB; bulliform (motor) cells in upper epidermis of grasses for rolling leaf.

Why it clicks: Bulliform cells and bundle sheath are hallmark monocot/grass leaf labels.

L5 — Tissues and Other Levels of Organization 9

Understanding

Q1. What are meristems? Write the location of the following meristems in the plant: 2 (a) Apical meristem (b) Lateral meristem

Answer: Meristems = permanently dividing tissues producing new cells. (a) Apical meristem — tips of root and shoot (primary growth). (b) Lateral meristem — sides of stem/root (vascular cambium, cork cambium) for secondary growth.

Why it clicks: Apical = length; lateral = girth.

Understanding

Q2. What are the main functions of the muscular tissue? Where are the following muscles located? (a) Striated muscles (b) Unstriated muscles

Answer: Muscular tissue: contraction for movement, posture, heat, organ motility. (a) Striated (skeletal) — attached to bones (limbs, body wall). (b) Unstriated (smooth) — walls of hollow organs (gut, blood vessels, uterus).

Why it clicks: Striated = voluntary skeletal; smooth = involuntary organs.

Understanding

Q3. (a) What types of roots are found in plants growing in marshy areas? (b) Write the name of the tissue present in the aerial roots of epiphytes, which help in the absorption of moisture from the atmosphere. 2 (H) Am y

Answer: (a) Marshy plants often have respiratory roots / pneumatophores (negatively geotropic aerial roots). (b) Velamen tissue (spongy multilayered epidermis) on aerial roots of epiphytes absorbs moisture.

Why it clicks: Pneumatophores = snorkels; velamen = moisture sponge on orchids etc.

Recall

Q4. Which one of the following is the living part of xylem?

(A) Tracheid
(B) Vessel
(C) Xylem fibre
(D) Xylem parenchyma
Answer: (D) Xylem parenchyma

Why it clicks: Tracheids, vessels, fibres are dead at maturity; only xylem parenchyma remains living.

Application / Analysis

Q5. (II) Why is parenchyma not a complex tissue? Because it has A. thin walls B. one type of cells only C. single nuclei D. no thickenings

Answer: (B) one type of cells only

Why it clicks: Simple tissue = one cell type (parenchyma). Complex tissue (xylem/phloem) = several cell types.

Application / Analysis

Q6. Identify the two wrong statements about meristematic tissue in plants i. Cells are arranged with intercellular spaces ii. Round, oval or polygonal thin walled living cells iii. Every cell with lot of cytoplasm and prominent nucleus iv. Every cell with larger prominent vacuoles

Answer: Wrong statements: (i) meristems have dense packing with little/no intercellular spaces — so (i) is wrong; (iv) meristematic cells have small/no large vacuoles — so (iv) is wrong. Correct features: thin-walled living cells with dense cytoplasm and prominent nucleus.

Why it clicks: Meristem = packed, dense cytoplasm, small vacuoles—not large empty vacuoles or big spaces.

Application / Analysis

Q7. Fill in the blanks: (Attempt any two parts from following questions (i) The 'brush border' in the lining of intestine is its epithelial lining made up of……. (ii) A slide showed differentiated cells of……….. Plant tissue of which were all structurally similar. (iii) Both bacteria and amoeba are able to divide into two by the method of ……… (iv) muscle fibre once if begins to contract does not stop contracting and relaxing all its life

Answer: (i) columnar epithelium with microvilli (brush border). (ii) simple permanent tissue / parenchyma (all cells structurally similar). (iii) binary fission. (iv) cardiac muscle (never fatigues; continuous contraction–relaxation for life).

Why it clicks: Brush border = absorptive gut epithelium; cardiac = lifelong beat.

Understanding

Q8. Write the phylum of each one of the following organisms belongs to.: (a) Earthworm (b) Shark (c) Starfish (d) Spider Give the technical terms for the following: (i) Plant tissue having singular cell (ii) Plant tissues which do not divide anymore

Answer: (a) Earthworm — Annelida. (b) Shark — Chordata. (c) Starfish — Echinodermata. (d) Spider — Arthropoda. Technical: (i) simple tissue (one cell type). (ii) permanent tissue (no longer dividing).

Why it clicks: Phylum labels + simple vs permanent tissue definitions.

Understanding

Q9. Iodized salt; sea food; fish green leafy vegetable in diet 29 Earthworm -Annelida Star fish-Platyhelmenthis Shark- Chordata Spider Arthropoda 30 (i) Simple Tissues (ii) Parenchymatous tissues 31 Blue-green algae or Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic bacteria but they are placed under kingdom Monera because they are unicellular, they show prokaryotic features like lack of a well defined nucleus

Answer: This chunk mixes marking-scheme notes. Core PE facts: Iodine sources — iodised salt, seafood, fish, greens (prevent goitre). Earthworm Annelida; shark Chordata; spider Arthropoda; starfish Echinodermata (not Platyhelminthes). Simple tissues; parenchyma. Cyanobacteria in Monera because prokaryotic.

Why it clicks: Use as revision of mixed PE facts; starfish is echinoderm, not flatworm.

L7 — Shoot System 2

Application / Analysis

Q1. Observe the diagrams given below and assign the correct name from the li st supplied. (Attempt any two parts from A-D) (Rhizome, Tuber, Corm, Bulb) 10 ]

Spell-checked HD: rhizome, tuber, corm, bulb.
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD: rhizome, tuber, corm, bulb.
Answer: Match stem modifications (typical): Rhizome — underground horizontal stem (ginger); Tuber — swollen tip for storage (potato); Corm — condensed vertical underground stem (colocasia); Bulb — fleshy scales on reduced stem (onion). Assign by shape in the paper diagram.

Why it clicks: All four are stem modifications for storage/perennation—not roots.

Understanding

Q2. The leaf of a plant is an example of A. a particular type of tissue B. an organ C. can organ system D. cell level of organization

Answer: (B) an organ

Why it clicks: Leaf = organ (several tissues: epidermis, mesophyll, vascular). Not a single tissue or whole organ system.

L10 — Nitrogen Metabolism 3

Recall

Q1. The special protein present in the root nodules of legume which helps in nitrogen fixation is

(A) leghaemoglobin
(B) nitrogenase
(C) chlorophyll
(D) haemoglobin
Answer: (A) leghaemoglobin

Why it clicks: Pink O₂-buffer protein in nodules; protects nitrogenase while allowing respiration.

Recall

Q2. The bacteria that help in the fixation of atmospheric nitrogen

(A) Rhizobium
(B) Streptomyces
(C) Salmonella
(D) Lactobacillus
Answer: (A) Rhizobium

Why it clicks: Symbiotic N₂ fixer in legume root nodules. Lactobacillus = dairy; Salmonella = pathogen.

Understanding

Q3. (b) Name the two proteins found in root nodules and helps in nitrogen fix ation. 14 ]

Answer: Nitrogenase (reduces N₂ → NH₃) and leghaemoglobin (regulates O₂ around nitrogenase).

Why it clicks: Two proteins: enzyme + oxygen shield.

L11 — Photosynthesis 8

Recall

Q1. In C4 plants, the initial acceptor of CO2 is

(A) Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
(B) Phosphoenolpyruvic acid (PEP)
(C) Oxaloacetic acid (OAA)
(D) Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
Answer: (B) Phosphoenolpyruvic acid (PEP)

Why it clicks: C4 first acceptor in mesophyll is PEP → OAA (4-C). RuBP is C3/Calvin acceptor.

Application / Analysis

Q2. Match Column-I with the functions given in Column-II. 2 Column-I Column-II (i) Pneumatophores (a) Roots with chlorophyll and manufacture food (ii) Haustoria (b) Roots developing from nodes and provide anchorage (c) Roots which grow vertically up in the air and help in respiration (d) Roots which penetrate the host plant and suck food from host

Answer: (i) Pneumatophores → (c) grow vertically up, help respiration. (ii) Haustoria → (d) penetrate host and suck food. (Also: photosynthetic roots → chlorophyll roots; prop/stilt from nodes → anchorage.)

Why it clicks: Match root modification to job: breathing vs parasitic suction.

Understanding

Q3. Photosynthesis occurs in green parts of the plants mostly the leaves which have chloroplasts. The thylakoids of chloroplast contain pigments which absorb l ight of different wavelengths and carry out the photochemical reactions. These pigments are packed into functional clusters called photosystems-PS-I and PS-II. (a) Name the pigments that constitute the photosystems. (b) What is the function of Photosystems?

Answer: (a) Pigments: chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, carotenoids (and xanthophylls) packed in PS-I and PS-II. (b) Photosystems absorb light, transfer energy, drive photochemical electron transport → ATP, NADPH, O₂ (from water).

Why it clicks: PS = functional pigment clusters on thylakoid membranes.

Understanding

Q4. (II) Distinguish between C3 and C4 plants with reference to the following characteristics. Features C3 Plants C4 Plants (a) Carbon di-oxide acceptor (b) Carbon di-oxide fixing enzymes (c) First product of photosynthesis A

Answer: (a) CO₂ acceptor: C3 = RuBP; C4 = PEP (mesophyll). (b) Enzymes: C3 = Rubisco; C4 = PEP carboxylase then Rubisco in bundle sheath. (c) First product: C3 = PGA (3-C); C4 = OAA (4-C).

Why it clicks: C4 is a CO₂ pump; first stable product is four-carbon.

Understanding

Q5. (a) What is Chemosynthesis? Write any four differences between chemosynthes is and photosynthesis

Answer: Chemosynthesis = synthesis of organic food using chemical energy from oxidation of inorganic substances (no light). Differences (any four): energy source chemical vs light; pigments absent vs chlorophyll; typical chemoautotroph bacteria vs green plants; no photolysis/O₂ release vs O₂ evolved; occurs in dark niches (deep sea, soil) vs needs light.

Why it clicks: Same goal (organic carbon), different energy battery.

Understanding

Q6. Match column -I statement with the right option of column II 2 a) Phylloclade b) Tuber i. Protection ii. Reproduction iii. Storage iv. Photosynthesis

Answer: Phylloclade → (iv) Photosynthesis (stem flattened, green — Opuntia). Tuber → (iii) Storage (potato). (Protection/reproduction if other modifications listed in paper.)

Why it clicks: Phylloclade photosynthesises; tuber stores food.

Application / Analysis

Q7. (I) With the help of a diagram only explain the Calvin cycle?

Spell-checked HD: carboxylation, reduction, regeneration.
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD: carboxylation, reduction, regeneration.
Answer: Calvin cycle (stroma): (1) Carboxylation — RuBP + CO₂ → 3-PGA (Rubisco). (2) Reduction — PGA → PGAL/triose-P using ATP + NADPH. (3) Regeneration — some PGAL rebuilds RuBP (ATP). Net sugar for starch/sucrose.

Why it clicks: Three gears: fix CO₂, reduce, rebuild RuBP.

Application / Analysis

Q8. i. In photosynthesis, there are two reactions light and dark reaction why are they called so? explain ii. What are the products obtained in each reaction? iii. What are P 680 and P700?

Answer: (i) Light reaction needs light (photons); dark/biosynthetic phase does not need light directly—uses ATP/NADPH. (ii) Light products: ATP, NADPH, O₂. Dark/Calvin products: sugars (and regenerates ADP, NADP⁺). (iii) P680 = reaction centre of PS-II; P700 = reaction centre of PS-I (absorption peaks).

Why it clicks: P numbers = wavelength of maximum absorption of the reaction-centre chlorophyll.

L12 — Respiration in Plants 1

Understanding

Q1. (I) Illustrate the 3 major phases in glycolysis

Spell-checked HD glycolysis phases (phosphate spelled correctly).
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD glycolysis phases (phosphate spelled correctly).
Answer: Three phases of glycolysis (cytosol): (1) Energy investment — glucose phosphorylated (uses ATP) → fructose-1,6-bisphosphate. (2) Cleavage — 6-C sugar split into two 3-C molecules. (3) Energy payoff — oxidation to 2 pyruvate; net 2 ATP + 2 NADH.

Why it clicks: Pay 2 ATP early, gain 4 later → net 2 ATP per glucose.

L15 — Circulation of Body Fluids 3

Recall

Q1. Heart is three-chambered in reptiles. But a partially divided ventricle (i.e., four-chambered heart) is present in

(A) salamander
(B) frog
(C) snake
(D) crocodile
Answer: (D) crocodile

Why it clicks: Crocodiles have a four-chambered heart; most other reptiles are three-chambered.

Understanding

Q2. (a) Write the differences between blood and lymph. (b) With the help of flowchart, only show the route of blood flow and lymph flow in the human body. 3 (H) a

Spell-checked HD blood/lymph routes.
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD blood/lymph routes.
Answer: Blood vs lymph: Blood has RBCs, platelets, plasma proteins, O₂ transport; closed continuous circuit from heart. Lymph is colourless tissue fluid in lymph vessels; mainly WBCs/lymphocytes; no RBCs; returns fluid and fats to veins. Blood route: heart → arteries → capillaries → veins → heart. Lymph route: tissues → lymph capillaries → nodes → larger ducts (thoracic duct) → subclavian veins → blood.

Why it clicks: Lymph is one-way return of fluid the blood leaked; blood is a closed loop.

Recall

Q3. The blood protein that provides factors for clotting is

(A) Albumin
(B) Fibrinogen
(C) Globulin
(D) Thrombin
Answer: (B) Fibrinogen

Why it clicks: Plasma protein converted to fibrin mesh in a clot. Thrombin is the enzyme, not the main clot protein store.

L17 — Coordination and Control – Nervous and Endocrine Systems 9

Recall

Q1. The condition caused due to oversecretion of thyroxine is

(A) goitre
(B) hyperthyroidism
(C) cretinism
(D) myxoedema
Answer: (B) hyperthyroidism

Why it clicks: Excess thyroxine = hyperthyroidism. Cretinism/myxoedema = underactivity patterns.

Understanding

Q2. Complete the flowchart with the basic components of the nervous system (attempt any two from A to D): 2V

Spell-checked HD CNS/PNS map.
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD CNS/PNS map.
Answer: Nervous system: CNS (brain + spinal cord) and PNS (cranial + spinal nerves). PNS further: sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent); motor → somatic and autonomic (sympathetic + parasympathetic).

Why it clicks: Fill any two blanks with CNS/PNS or brain/spinal cord/nerves as per flowchart.

Recall

Q3. Which one of the following is not produced due to under secretion of thyroxine?

(A) Goitre
(B) Cretinism
(C) Myxoedema
(D) Rickets
Answer: (A) Goitre is NOT always from under-secretion of thyroxine — classic goitre is often iodine deficiency (thyroid enlarges trying to make hormone). Under-secretion products include cretinism and myxoedema. So the option that is NOT produced by under-secretion alone is typically goitre when listed that way; if options include hyperthyroidism features, those are also not hypo. Prefer: goitre (iodine lack) simple hypo list.

Why it clicks: Hypo → cretinism/myxoedema; goitre often iodine deficiency story.

Application / Analysis

Q4. Identify the type of neuron given in the diagram and state the function of axon: 2 15 ]

Spell-checked HD neuron (myelin correct).
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD neuron (myelin correct).
Answer: Identify neuron type from diagram (multipolar/bipolar/unipolar as shown). Axon function: conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body to next neuron/muscle/gland.

Why it clicks: Dendrites receive; axon sends out.

Understanding

Q5. (I) The faulty functioning of an endocrine gland can make a person very short or very tall. This gland is: A. pituitary B. adrenal C. pineal D. thyroid

Answer: (A) pituitary

Why it clicks: Growth hormone (STH/GH) from anterior pituitary: excess → tall/gigantism; deficit → short/dwarfism.

Application / Analysis

Q6. Match the hormones in column I with their functions given in column II. (i) Column I Column II (i) Testosterone (ii) Insulin (a) Causes breasts to develop in females (b) Regulates the amount of sugar is blood (c) Causes males to start producing sperms (d) Prepares body for as emergency 20 In the flow chart given below write down the basic components of the nervous system in the empty spaces, a, b, c, and d.(attempt any two a

Answer: Testosterone → (c) males start producing sperms / male secondary characters. Insulin → (b) regulates blood sugar. (Oestrogen related to breast development; adrenaline prepares for emergency.) Nervous system blanks: CNS = brain + spinal cord; PNS = nerves.

Why it clicks: Match hormone to textbook action.

Understanding

Q7. (b) Suppose you are stuck in traffic and have the feeling of urination. Which part of the nervous system do you think is responsible for this? Mention the role of that part

Answer: Parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (rest-and-digest) increases bladder contraction/urge in many contexts; autonomic control of visceral organs. Feeling of urination is visceral; ANS regulates smooth muscle of bladder.

Why it clicks: Not skeletal (somatic) control alone—visceral ANS pathway.

Understanding

Q8. Following is the list of hormones produced in our body. Write their expanded forms and write the names of the endocrine glands that produce them: (a) STH (b) TSH (c) FSH (e) ADH Marking Scheme (.no MCQs Marks

Answer: (a) STH = Somatotropic / Growth hormone — anterior pituitary. (b) TSH = Thyroid-stimulating hormone — anterior pituitary. (c) FSH = Follicle-stimulating hormone — anterior pituitary. (e) ADH = Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) — produced in hypothalamus, released by posterior pituitary.

Why it clicks: Tropic hormones of anterior pituitary vs ADH from posterior pituitary.

Understanding

Q9. ADH (Antidiuretic hormone) is released by the posterior pituitary gland and is a non- tropic hormone. TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone), and FSH(follicle-stimulating hormone) are released by the anterior pituitary gland and are tropic hormones. STH: Somatotropic Hormone LH: Luteinizing Hormone

Answer: ADH — posterior pituitary, water reabsorption in kidney (non-tropic). TSH, FSH — anterior pituitary, tropic (stimulate other glands). STH = growth hormone; LH = luteinizing hormone (anterior pituitary).

Why it clicks: Marking-scheme style facts already in stem—use as model answer.

L19 — Reproduction in Plants 13

Recall

Q1. When both male and female flowers are present on the same plant, the plant is said to be

(A) unisexual
(B) monoecious
(C) dioecious
(D) bisexual
Answer: (B) monoecious

Why it clicks: Both male and female flowers on same plant = monoecious. Dioecious = sexes on different plants.

Recall

Q2. The edible part of the coconut is

(A) fleshy thalamus
(B) mesocarp
(C) pericarp
(D) endosperm
Answer: (D) endosperm

Why it clicks: Coconut water and white kernel are endosperm (food tissue of seed).

Recall

Q3. The example of hypanthodium is

(A) Tulsi
(B) Peepal
(C) Sunflower
(D) Euphorbia
Answer: (B) Peepal (Ficus)

Why it clicks: Hypanthodium = fig-type closed receptacle; example peepal/fig.

Application / Analysis

Q4. Identify the type of inflorescence of the diagram given below:

Answer: Identify from diagram (typical options): raceme, spike, cyme, umbel, capitulum, hypanthodium, etc. Use axis growth (indeterminate vs determinate) and flower arrangement on the given figure.

Why it clicks: Without the figure, name the type your paper diagram shows using NIOS inflorescence list.

Understanding

Q5. What do you understand by the term 'double fertilization'? Briefly explain the process and the end products formed. 3 "Xmoham

Answer: Double fertilisation (angiosperms): one male gamete + egg → zygote (2n); other male gamete + two polar nuclei → primary endosperm nucleus (3n) → endosperm. Products: embryo + endosperm (and later seed/fruit).

Why it clicks: Two fusions, two products—unique to flowering plants.

Understanding

Q6. Name the following: 2 (i) Excretory organs of earthworm (ii) Naked seeds are the characteristic feature of this group of plants 9 ]

Answer: (i) Nephridia (earthworm excretory organs). (ii) Gymnosperms (naked seeds).

Why it clicks: Annelid excretion + gymnosperm key character.

Understanding

Q7. Supply the technical term for the following: 2 (a) Division of other cells in embryo sac like synergids or antipodal cel ls to give rise to additional embryos. (b) The process in which the zygote may divide to give rise to two or more cell s each of which develops into a separate embryo

Answer: (a) Apogamy (embryo from synergids/antipodals without fertilisation in some texts; or adventive embryony for nucellar embryos—NIOS: additional embryos from embryo-sac cells often under apomixis/apogamy). (b) Cleavage polyembryony (zygote splits into several embryos).

Why it clicks: Extra embryos without normal single zygote path = polyembryony types.

Understanding

Q8. (b) What is the function of Endosperm in the flowering plants? Write th e names of any 2 types of endosperms

Answer: Endosperm nourishes the developing embryo (food store in seed). Types: nuclear, cellular, helobial (any two).

Why it clicks: Endosperm = baby plants lunch box; classified by how free nuclei/walls form.

Understanding

Q9. (II) Which one of the following helps in maintaining posture and balance of the human body? A. medulla B. cerebellum C. cerebrum D. Pons 4 (I) A pollen grain in its external view is drawn here. The substance which is the chief component of its external layer A. cellulose B. pectin C. protein D. sporo-pollonin

Answer: Posture and balance: (B) cerebellum. Pollen outer wall (exine) chief component: (D) sporopollenin.

Why it clicks: Cerebellum = balance; sporopollenin = tough pollen coat.

Understanding

Q10. (II) Developing pollen grains in an anther are nourished by A. Epidermal cells/ outermost layer B. Middle layer C. Inner most layer, tapetum D. Micro spore mother cells

Answer: (C) Innermost layer, tapetum

Why it clicks: Tapetum nourishes developing pollen grains inside anther.

Understanding

Q11. (II) The mode of reproduction in Chlamydomonas where the gametes are morphologically identical but differ physiologically or chemically: A. Oogamy; B. Ani sogamy C. Syngamy D. Isogamy 9 (I) Leydig cells in the human testes secrete produce A. Seminal fluid B. Testosterone C. Sperms D. a white, vis cons, alkaline secretion

Answer: Chlamydomonas morphologically identical but physiologically different gametes: (B) Anisogamy (or isogamy if strictly identical; NIOS often: isogamy = similar; anisogamy = differ in size/physiology; oogamy = egg+sperm). If morphologically identical → Isogamy (D). If differ physiologically → often taught as anisogamy. Leydig cells produce (B) Testosterone.

Why it clicks: For morphologically identical gametes pick Isogamy; Leydig = testosterone.

Understanding

Q12. "Angiosperms are either Monocots or Dicots". State any four differences between them

Answer: Any four: cotyledons 1 vs 2; venation parallel vs reticulate; roots fibrous vs tap; stem bundles scattered vs ring; flowers trimerous vs tetra/pentamerous; secondary growth rare vs common.

Why it clicks: Classic monocot–dicot comparison table.

Application / Analysis

Q13. With the help of a neat labelled diagram explain Hypanthodium inflorescence, Give an example of it

Spell-checked HD hypanthodium (ostiole correct).
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD hypanthodium (ostiole correct).
Answer: Hypanthodium: fleshy cup-like receptacle with a pore (ostiole); unisexual flowers inside (figs/Ficus). Example: peepal / banyan / fig. Draw hollow receptacle + ostiole + male/female flowers inside.

Why it clicks: Closed urn with a door = hypanthodium.

L21 — Reproduction and Population Control 11

Recall

Q1. Name of the technique used for detecting genetic disorders in a foetus is

(A) amniocentesis
(B) ultrasound
(C) X-ray
(D) MRI
Answer: (A) amniocentesis

Why it clicks: Amniotic fluid sampling detects foetal chromosomal/genetic disorders.

Application / Analysis

Q2. Match the statement given in Column-I with the right option in Column-II: 2 Column-I Column-II (i) Copper-T (a) Interfere with the ovulation process and prevent fertilization (ii) Condoms (b) Prevent sperms from meeting the ovulated egg (c) Implantation is not possible (d) Permanently prevent fertilization

Answer: Copper-T (IUD) → (c) prevents implantation / creates uterine environment hostile to implantation (also may affect sperm). Condoms → (b) barrier preventing sperm meeting ovum. (Hormonal pills interfere with ovulation; sterilisation permanently prevents fertilisation.)

Why it clicks: Barrier vs IUD vs hormonal vs permanent—match mode of action.

Understanding

Q3. Write the name of one contraception carried on in human females. Describe the procedure adopted for it. m ('mZd 'mXm)

Answer: Example surgical female contraception: tubectomy — fallopian tubes cut and tied so ovum cannot meet sperm. Definitions: Amnion — protective membrane around foetus filled with amniotic fluid. Demography — statistical study of human populations. Population growth rate — rate of change of population size (births deaths ± migration).

Why it clicks: Tubectomy = female sterilisation; demography = population statistics.

Application / Analysis

Q4. Write three effects of uncontrolled population growth on a nation

Answer: Effects of uncontrolled population growth (any three): unemployment; pressure on food/housing/schools/health; environmental degradation; poverty; resource scarcity. (If paper also asks bacterial transformation: uptake of naked DNA changing genotype; semi-conservative replication: each new DNA has one old + one new strand.)

Why it clicks: Social/economic strain from rapid growth is the L21 focus.

Understanding

Q5. Complete the following flow chart from A-D (Attempt any two parts from (A-D)) Sperms are deposited into the female reproductive tract and eggs released from "A" → union of sperm and ovum in "B" →to form a zygote. →zygote divides rapidly to form a spherical mass →"C" →Early embryonic stage called blastocyst get implanted into D

Spell-checked HD fertilisation A–D path.
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD fertilisation A–D path.
Answer: A = ovary (releases egg). B = fallopian tube / oviduct (fertilisation site). C = morula (solid ball after cleavage). D = uterus / endometrium (implantation of blastocyst).

Why it clicks: Egg from ovary → meet sperm in tube → morula → implant in uterus.

Application / Analysis

Q6. Label the Given below structure of a human sperm and i. Mitochondria ii. Acrosome

Spell-checked HD sperm (acrosome, mitochondria).
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD sperm (acrosome, mitochondria).
Answer: Human sperm: head with acrosome (enzymes to penetrate egg coats) + nucleus; middle piece packed with mitochondria (ATP for motility); tail/flagellum for swimming. Label acrosome on head tip; mitochondria in midpiece.

Why it clicks: Drill, fuel tank, propeller.

Understanding

Q7. Which are the two factors according to you that justify the need for family planning in our country?

Answer: Any two: control rapid population growth; improve maternal/child health; reduce unwanted pregnancies; raise standard of living; spacing of children; national resource balance.

Why it clicks: Family planning = health + resources + informed choice.

Understanding

Q8. Under what conditions do populations become J shaped and S Shaped

Answer: J-shaped: unlimited resources, no environmental resistance—exponential growth. S-shaped (logistic): resources become limiting, growth slows, stabilises near carrying capacity.

Why it clicks: Plenty → J; limited → S.

Understanding

Q9. (I)State non surgical method of contraception. Mention the name of the procedures

Answer: Non-surgical: barrier methods (condom, diaphragm); chemical (spermicides); hormonal oral pills; IUD (Copper-T); natural methods (periodic abstinence, withdrawal)—as per NIOS list. Name any with brief how it prevents fertilisation/implantation.

Why it clicks: Non-surgical = reversible methods without cutting tubes.

Understanding

Q10. (I) Indian population is about to reach a stage of explosion. State any three reasons which may have contributed to such a situation

Answer: Any three reasons for population pressure: high birth rate; decline in death rate (better health); illiteracy/lack of awareness of family planning; early marriage; desire for male child; religious/social attitudes.

Why it clicks: Births high + deaths low → explosion risk.

Understanding

Q11. 36 Populations become J shaped when food is available in plenty, Populations become S Shaped when food becomes limited 37 (I) Vestibule

Answer: J-shaped when food/resources plentiful (exponential). S-shaped when food/resources limited (logistic, approaches carrying capacity).

Why it clicks: Same rule as above—marking key.

L22 — Principles of Genetics 6

Application / Analysis

Q1. A cross between the F1 progeny and the homozygous recessive parent is known as

(A) test cross
(B) dihybrid cross
(C) reciprocal cross
(D) monohybrid cross
Answer: (A) test cross

Why it clicks: F1 × homozygous recessive = test cross to reveal genotype.

Application / Analysis

Q2. The phenotypic ratio, in case of incomplete dominance in Mirabilis jalapa, is

Answer: (D) 1 : 2 : 1

Why it clicks: Incomplete dominance (Mirabilis): red : pink : white = 1 : 2 : 1.

Application / Analysis

Q3. A cross was made between a tall pea plant with red flowers (TTRR) and a dwarf pea plant with white flowers (ttrr). Work out the cross up to F2 generation. Write the phenotypic ratio of F2 generation. 3 b o

Answer: Parents TTRR (tall red) × ttrr (dwarf white) → F1 all TtRr (tall red). F2 dihybrid ratio phenotypes 9 tall red : 3 tall white : 3 dwarf red : 1 dwarf white (if independent assortment, complete dominance).

Why it clicks: Classic Mendel dihybrid 9:3:3:1.

Application / Analysis

Q4. Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with appropriat e words. 2 (Attempt any two parts A-D) Criss Cross inheritance in humans A.and B.are examples of sex-linked inheritance in humans. The defective gene is located on C. chromosome. Thus a single defective gene causes disease in males while two defective genes (D. condition) only can cause the disease in females. 12 ]

Answer: A/B examples: colour blindness and haemophilia (sex-linked). C = X chromosome. D = homozygous (two defective alleles in female).

Why it clicks: X-linked: males express with one copy; females need two.

Application / Analysis

Q5. (b) A tall pea plant with red flowers (TTRR) is crossed with white dwarf plants (ttrr). Work out the phenotypic ratio in F2 for this cross. (b) U U c (TTRR) c (ttrr) U

Answer: Same as dihybrid: F2 phenotypic ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (tall red : tall white : dwarf red : dwarf white).

Why it clicks: TTRR × ttrr → F1 TtRr → F2 9:3:3:1.

Understanding

Q6. (II) Haemophilia is a sex linked disease in human beings. A carrier female has married a normal male. Show the genotype of both the individuals. What will be the phenotype of their progeny both daughter and son, with regard to the disease?

Answer: Carrier female XX × normal male XY. Daughters: 50% normal XX, 50% carrier XX (none haemophilic if dominant normal). Sons: 50% normal XY, 50% haemophilic XY. Phenotype: all daughters clinically normal (carriers possible); half sons affected.

Why it clicks: Criss-cross: sons get mothers X.

L23 — Molecular Inheritance and Gene Expression 7

Recall

Q1. Pick the odd one out

(A) UGA
(B) AUG
(C) UAG
(D) UAA
Answer: If options are stop/start codons: AUG is start; UAA/UAG/UGA stop—odd one depends on set. If options GAU, AGU, AUG, TGT: TGT is not an mRNA codon (T not in RNA)—odd one (D) TGT. If classic UGA/AUG/UAG/UAA set: odd is AUG (start).

Why it clicks: RNA uses U not T; stop vs start is the usual trap.

Understanding

Q2. Match the items in Column-I with the suitable items in Column-II: 2 Column-I Column-II (a) Stilt root (i) Turnip (b) Fusiform root (ii) Banyan (iii) Sugarcane (iv) Radish

Answer: Stilt root → sugarcane (support from nodes). Fusiform root → radish (spindle storage). (Turnip = napiform; banyan = prop roots.)

Why it clicks: Match root modification to example plant.

Recall

Q3. The formation of RNA from DNA is known as

(A) Translation
(B) Transcription
(C) Transformation
(D) Transduction
Answer: (B) Transcription

Why it clicks: DNA → RNA = transcription. RNA → protein = translation.

Application / Analysis

Q4. Observe the given diagram and answer the questions that follow: 2 (a) In which direction does the enzyme DNA polymerase catalyses DNA replic ation (b) Which enzymes joins the Okazaki fragments to form a complete DNA str and. (a)

Spell-checked HD DNA fork (Okazaki, ligase).
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD DNA fork (Okazaki, ligase).
Answer: (a) DNA polymerase synthesises new strand in 5′ → 3′ direction. (b) DNA ligase joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.

Why it clicks: Always 5′→3′; lagging strand needs ligase glue.

Application / Analysis

Q5. (I) Observe the Lac operon diagram given below and answer the questions that follows. (a) Which substance acts as inducer in this operon? (b) Where does RNA polymerase bind to initiate transcription? (c) What are the genes z, y, a called as?

Spell-checked HD lac operon.
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD lac operon.
Answer: (a) Inducer: lactose (allolactose). (b) RNA polymerase binds at the promoter. (c) z, y, a = structural genes (-galactosidase, permease, transacetylase).

Why it clicks: Lac operon: lactose turns on structural genes via operator control.

Application / Analysis

Q6. (a) Correct the diagram of Central dogma given below DNA Transcription RNA Replication Protein (ii)Where in a eukaryotic cell, Transcription, Replication and translation occur?

Spell-checked HD central dogma processes.
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD central dogma processes.
Answer: Correct central dogma: DNA —replication→ DNA; DNA —transcription→ RNA; RNA —translation→ protein. Eukaryote sites: replication & transcription in nucleus; translation on ribosomes in cytoplasm.

Why it clicks: Do not write RNA → protein as replication.

Understanding

Q7. Desire for male offspring a) DNA Transcription mRNA Translation Protein Transcription and replication inside the nucleus, translation in the ribosome in the cytoplasm

Answer: Central dogma correct path: DNA transcription→ mRNA translation→ protein. Nucleus: transcription & replication; cytoplasm ribosomes: translation. (Desire for male offspring is a population/social issue, not molecular dogma.)

Why it clicks: Use the corrected dogma lines as the answer.

L25 — Principles of Ecology 10

Recall

Q1. Which of the following makes up the final trophic level in a food chain?

(A) Parasite
(B) Producer
(C) Decomposer
(D) Carnivore
Answer: (C) Decomposer

Why it clicks: Decomposers form the final trophic role recycling dead matter.

Application / Analysis

Q2. Fill in the blanks (attempt any two from A to D): 2 The flowchart given below is a diagrammatic representation of trophic levels in a A in an ecosystem: Fourth trophic level Third trophic level (Carnivore) Second trophic level First trophic level [a WmZ [aE (A go D

Spell-checked HD trophic levels.
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD trophic levels.
Answer: A = food chain. First trophic level = producers. Second = herbivores/primary consumers. Third = carnivores/secondary consumers. Fourth = top carnivores/tertiary consumers.

Why it clicks: Base producers, then consumers up the chain.

Application / Analysis

Q3. Fill in the blanks (attempt any two from A to D): 2 A and B are two adaptations to promote cross-pollination in flowers; while C and D are two devices to ensure self-pollination. [a WmZ [aE (A go D

Answer: Cross-pollination devices (any two): dichogamy, self-sterility/self-incompatibility, unisexual flowers, herkogamy, different positions of anther/stigma. Self-pollination devices: cleistogamy (closed flowers), homogamy (anther & stigma mature together).

Why it clicks: Open flowers that force outcrossing vs closed flowers that self.

Application / Analysis

Q4. Define the following terms: 2 (a) Population (b) Adaptation

Answer: (a) Population — group of individuals of the same species in a given area at a given time. (b) Adaptation — inherited trait that improves survival/reproduction in a habitat.

Why it clicks: Population = same species group; adaptation = useful inherited trait.

Recall

Q5. Which one of the following adaptations is seen in plants to promot e self-pollination?

(A) Cleistogamy
(B) Dichogamy
(C) Unisexuality
(D) Self-sterility
Answer: (A) Cleistogamy

Why it clicks: Closed flowers force self-pollination. Dichogamy/unisexuality/self-sterility promote cross-pollination.

Application / Analysis

Q6. In the given food chain identify the trophic level of frog

(A) First trophic level
(B) Second trophic level
(C) Third trophic level
(D) Tertiary trophic level
Answer: (C) Third trophic level

Why it clicks: Typical chain grass → insect → frog → snake: frog is secondary consumer = third trophic level.

Recall

Q7. The biological community in an area or ecosystem is a complex networ k of interactions. Interactions may be of various types. In commensalism type

(A) Both species harmed
(B) One benefits, other unaffected
(C) Both harmed
(D) Both benefit
Answer: Commensalism: one species benefits, the other is neither harmed nor benefited (e.g. epiphyte on tree). Not both harmed (competition) or both benefited (mutualism).

Why it clicks: + / 0 interaction.

Understanding

Q8. Aquatic ecosystems are classified on the basis of salinity into tw o types-Fresh water and Marine. The common flora and fauna found in fresh water bodies like ri vers, lake include phytoplanktons, water hyacinth, water lily and zooplankton, cra b and fishes respectively. Wet lands are between aquatic and terrestrial ecosystem. They show an edge effect and form an ecotone. (a) What is the study of fresh water ecosystem known as? (b) Define ecotone

Answer: (a) Limnology (study of freshwater ecosystems). (b) Ecotone — transition zone between two ecosystems/communities (edge effect).

Why it clicks: Wetland edge = classic ecotone example.

Understanding

Q9. Build a food chain showing one producer and three consumers. What will be the trophic level of the final consumer of this food chain?

Answer: Example: grass → grasshopper → frog → snake. Final consumer (snake) = fourth trophic level (tertiary consumer).

Why it clicks: Count levels from producer = 1.

Understanding

Q10. Genes → cells →organ → organism → population Species → community → Ecosystem →biome →Biosphere 35 Defence against microorganisms such as virus and bacteria; recognition and destruction of mutant cells

Answer: Biological organisation levels (increasing): genes → cells → tissues/organs → organism → population → species → community → ecosystem → biome → biosphere. Population is same-species group; community is interacting populations; ecosystem adds abiotic factors.

Why it clicks: Hierarchy from molecule to whole Earth living system.

L28 — Nutrition and Health 10

Recall

Q1. Excessive intake of iron in diet causes

(A) scurvy
(B) hypervitaminosis
(C) anaemia
(D) hemosiderosis
Answer: (D) hemosiderosis

Why it clicks: Iron overload → hemosiderosis. Anaemia = iron lack; scurvy = vitamin C lack.

Understanding

Q2. What are vitamins? Vitamins are grouped into two classes. Name them and give one example of each

Answer: Vitamins = organic micronutrients needed in small amounts for metabolism (not energy fuels). Two classes: fat-soluble (A, D, E, K) and water-soluble (B-complex, C). Example: A — night vision / carrots; C — collagen / amla, citrus.

Why it clicks: Fat vs water solubility decides storage and overdose risk.

Application / Analysis

Q3. Given below is the list of vitamins with their functions. Choose the incorrect pairs of vitamins with reference to their function. (a) Vitamin A: Maintenance of vision (b) Vitamin C: Formation of blood (c) Vitamin D: Healthy bones and teeth (d) Vitamin K: antioxidant: ageing vitamin

Answer: Pick the pair where vitamin does not match function/deficiency (e.g. vitamin C linked to night blindness is wrong—night blindness is vitamin A). Correct maps: A night vision; D bones/Ca; C scurvy; B1 beri-beri; B12 anaemia; K clotting.

Why it clicks: Eliminate the mismatched vitamin–disease pair.

Application / Analysis

Q4. A group of food items is given in the table. Categorize them into energy providing foods and body building foods. Cereals, legumes, meat, sugar, oil, fish, egg, jaggery Cereals, legumes, meat, sugar, oil, fish, egg, jaggery

Answer: Energy-providing: cereals, sugars, oils, ghee, butter, jaggery. Body-building: pulses, milk, eggs, meat, fish, nuts. Protective: fruits, green vegetables (vitamins, minerals, fibre).

Why it clicks: Three food-function groups from NIOS nutrition.

Understanding

Q5. (a) Define obesity. 3 (b) List any two causes of obesity. (c) State two Harmful effects of obesity

Answer: (a) Obesity = excess body fat accumulation from long-term energy intake > expenditure. (b) Causes: overeating high-calorie food; sedentary life; genetics/hormones. (c) Harmful effects: heart disease, hypertension, diabetes risk, joint strain.

Why it clicks: Too many calories in, too little out.

Understanding

Q6. Deficiency in minerals in our food may lead to deficiency diseases. Nam e which mineral deficiency may lead to the following: (a) Anaemia (b) Osteomalacia (c) Goitre

Answer: Iron deficiency → anaemia. Iodine → goitre/cretinism. Calcium/phosphorus → rickets/osteomalacia/weak bones. Name mineral + disease for each asked.

Why it clicks: Mineral map: Fe blood, I thyroid, Ca bones.

Understanding

Q7. (II) Among the food constituents the richest source of energy and also excess of which causes obesity is A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Fats D. Vitamins 12 Suggest a permanent method of family planning to a couple who already have two children. A. Copper. T B. Vasectomy D. Condoms. 13 (I) My nephew reads a book aloud clearly during the day but cannot see the words on the same page at night. He has been diagnosed with a deficiency of vitamin

Answer: Fats/oils are densest energy (~9 kcal/g); excess fat/carb energy storage causes obesity.

Why it clicks: Fat = 9 kcal/g vs carb/protein ~4.

Application / Analysis

Q8. (II) Marasmus and Kwashiorkar occur in case of A. Under nutrition B. Malnutrition C. Overnutrition D. Balanced diet 14 The antibiotic obtained from Streptomyces aureofaciens is A. streptomycin. B. cycloheximide. C. chloramphenicol. D. chlorotetracycline. 15 Which bacterium helps to set milk into yoghurt? A. Lactobacillus B. Preumococcus C. Azotobacter D. Mycobacterium

Answer: (B) Lactobacillus

Why it clicks: Lactic acid bacteria set milk to curd/yoghurt.

Application / Analysis

Q9. Given below are the names of some genetic diseases. Write down one symptom for any two disease a) Haemophilia b) Colour blindedness c) Kline felter syndrome d) Sickle cell anemia

Answer: If nutrition paper mixed genetics: sickle-cell — painful crises/abnormal RBC; haemophilia — prolonged bleeding; colour blindness — cannot distinguish colours. Prefer PE map asked in that paper.

Why it clicks: One clear symptom per disease name.

Understanding

Q10. (I) A large number of people in our country suffer from malnutrition. Malnutrition affects the health of the children adversely as it results in physical and mental retardation. Generally the growing children suffer from protein energy malnutrition. A number of children in the age group of 1-5 years suffer from this disease. i. Define Disease ii. Write any two common diseases of PEM seen in our country

Answer: Malnutrition = imbalance of nutrients (under- or over-nutrition). Effects: weakness, PEM (marasmus/kwashiorkor), anaemia, poor growth/immunity, deficiency diseases; excess can cause obesity. Prevention: balanced diet with carbs, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, water, roughage.

Why it clicks: Wrong nutrition harms health—both too little and too much.

L30 — Biotechnology 8

Recall

Q1. A broad-spectrum antibiotic, used against pathogenic bacteria, is

(A) penicillin
(B) paracetamol
(C) erythromycin
(D) streptomycin
Answer: (C) erythromycin (among typical options; penicillin often narrower)

Why it clicks: Broad-spectrum hits many bacterial types.

Recall

Q2. Which of the following bacteria helps to set milk into yoghurt?

(A) Mycobacterium
(B) Lactobacillus
(C) Azotobacter
(D) Pneumococcus
Answer: (B) Lactobacillus

Why it clicks: Lactic acid bacteria set milk to curd/yoghurt.

Recall

Q3. The disease for which bio-engineered vaccine has already been developed is

(A) smallpox
(B) tetanus
(C) hepatitis B
(D) pertussis
Answer: (C) hepatitis B

Why it clicks: Recombinant hepatitis B vaccine is textbook example.

Recall

Q4. Biotechnology helps in synthesizing enzymes from cloned genes. Your friend wants to manufacture meat tenderisers. Which enzyme would you recommend to him?

(A) Lipases
(C) Amylases
(D) Glucoisomerases
Answer: Cloned genes in microbes produce enzymes (proteases, amylases, etc.) for industry; scale culture, extract, purify enzyme.

Why it clicks: Bacteria as enzyme factories via recombinant DNA.

Application / Analysis

Q5. Which one of the following is not the step of microinjection process in biotechnology?

(A) Collection and In-vitro maturation of oocytes
(B) In-vitro fertilization with male semen
(C) Microinjection of "input DNA" into male pronuclei
(D) U S s U U U U m U
Answer: Microinjection steps: collect oocytes, fertilise/mature, inject DNA into male pronucleus, implant embryo in foster mother, screen offspring. NOT a step: e.g. using Ti plasmid in plant cells / restriction of plasmid only—pick the option that is plant Agrobacterium or pure bacterial cloning without egg injection.

Why it clicks: Microinjection = DNA into animal egg pronucleus.

Understanding

Q6. (a) Following is the representation of how a plasmid isolated from bac terium that causes galls in several plants is used to produce transgenic plants. (i) Name the bacterium that causes galls in plants. (ii) Name the plasmid used to transmit the desired genes

Answer: Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium: remove tumour genes, insert desired gene, infect plant cells → transgenic plant.

Why it clicks: Natural plant genetic engineer = Agrobacterium Ti plasmid.

Application / Analysis

Q7. (b) Given below is the picture of a normal mouse

(A) and a transgenic mouse
Answer: Transgenic mouse (e.g. with rat GH gene) is larger than normal littermate; foreign gene integrated and expressed.

Why it clicks: Transgene changes phenotype (size) vs control mouse.

Understanding

Q8. Fermentation has a number of industrial applications, like A. In bakeries for preparing bread, cakes and biscuits. B. In breweries for preparing wine and other alcoholic drinks. C. In producing vinegar and in the tanning of leather. D. All the above. Which of the following cells is involved in cell-mediated immunity? (a) Leukaemia (b) T-cells (c) Mast cells (d) Thrombocytes

Answer: Yes — bakeries (CO₂ leavening), alcohol, organic acids, etc. All listed fermentation uses are valid industrial applications.

Why it clicks: Yeast/bacterial fermentation = industry workhorse.

L31 — Immunobiology: An Introduction 8

Recall

Q1. The largest lymphoid organ in the human body is

(A) bone marrow
(B) thymus
(C) adrenal
(D) spleen
Answer: (D) spleen

Why it clicks: Spleen is the largest lymphoid organ.

Understanding

Q2. Write the main functions of B-cells and T-cells in the immune system

Answer: B-cells: antibody-mediated (humoral) immunity; become plasma cells secreting antibodies; form memory B cells. T-cells: mature in thymus; helper T activate others; cytotoxic T kill virus-infected/tumour cells; suppressor T limit response; mediate cell-mediated immunity.

Why it clicks: B = antibodies; T = help/kill/regulate.

Application / Analysis

Q3. Draw a diagrammatic structure of an antibody, and label the specific antigen-binding site

Spell-checked HD antibody structure.
HD model diagram: Spell-checked HD antibody structure.
Answer: Y-shaped antibody (Ig): two heavy + two light chains. Arms (Fab) have variable antigen-binding sites (paratopes); stem is Fc (constant). Label both antigen-binding sites on the two prongs and Fc region.

Why it clicks: Two sticky hands (bind antigen) + one handle (Fc).

Understanding

Q4. (a) Write the names of any two immunodeficiency disorders and give the cause of the disease. (b) Name the two major types of lymphocytes. State where they develop and mature. (H)

Answer: Examples: SCID (e.g. ADA deficiency — low T and B function); AIDS (HIV destroys helper T cells). Cause: genetic enzyme defect or viral destruction of immunity.

Why it clicks: Primary genetic vs acquired viral immunodeficiency.

Recall

Q5. Name the cells that are seen in the lymph nodes and attack bacteria

(A) Lymphocytes
(B) Monocytes
(C) Granulocytes
(D) Erythrocytes
Answer: (A) Lymphocytes

Why it clicks: Lymph nodes are packed with lymphocytes (B and T cells) that target pathogens (L15/L31). Erythrocytes carry O₂; they do not attack bacteria.

Application / Analysis

Q6. Identify the immunoglobulin found in highest concentration in our body

(A) IgA
(B) IgG
(C) IgM
(D) IgE
Answer: IgG (~75% of serum immunoglobulins)

Why it clicks: IgG is most abundant antibody class.

Application / Analysis

Q7. Fill in the spaces A and B in the sentences given below: 2 (a) Cell mediated immune response is mediated by (b) Humoral immune responses is mediated by B

Answer: Cell-mediated immunity: T-lymphocytes (cytotoxic T cells) against virus-infected/tumour cells. Humoral immunity: B-lymphocytes → plasma cells → antibodies.

Why it clicks: T cells cell-mediated; B cells antibodies.

Understanding

Q8. (a) What are the two specific immune responses we develop in our body when we are infected?

Answer: Specific responses: (1) humoral (antibody-mediated) and (2) cell-mediated (T-cell). Both adaptive, antigen-specific, with memory.

Why it clicks: Two arms of adaptive immunity.