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317
NIOS Senior Secondary All 54 Questions Solved & Audited

Political Science (317)

Official Examination Solutions • Complete Curriculum Alignment

Political Science (317)
Complete Solved Question Paper

Exhaustive solutions for all 54 questions adhering strictly to NIOS Senior Secondary guidelines. Features complete answers for all 20 MCQs, 15 dual-part objective questions, very short and short analyses, long essays, and full coverage of both Optional Modules (Module 7A: World Order & UN and Module 7B: Administrative System in India).

Time: 3 Hours Max Marks: 100 Total: 54 Questions Both Modules 7A & 7B Solved
100 Max Marks 54 Questions
20 MCQs
Modules 7A & 7B
15 Objectives
Federal Essays

General Examination Instructions & Marking Scheme

Click to expand/collapse candidate guidelines and question distribution

Instructions for Candidates:

  1. Candidate must write his/her Roll Number on the first page of the Question Paper.
  2. This question paper contains 54 questions in total. All questions are compulsory.
  3. Write your Question Paper Code No. 72/SS/317, Set A1 on the Answer-Book.
  4. Attempt questions from either Optional Module—7A (World Order and the United Nations) or Optional Module—7B (Administrative System in India) as provided in the question paper. (Both modules are fully solved in this document for comprehensive preparation).
Section-Wise Question Structure
  • • Q. 1 to 20: MCQs (1 Mark each = 20 Marks)
  • • Q. 21 to 35: Objective Type (2 Marks each, 1+1 = 30 Marks)
  • • Q. 36 to 46: Very Short Answer (2 Marks each = 22 Marks; 30–50 words)
  • • Q. 47 to 52: Short Answer (3 Marks each = 18 Marks; 50–80 words)
  • • Q. 53 to 54: Long Answer Essay (5 Marks each = 10 Marks; 80–120+ words)
Examination Timing & Max Marks

Total Marks: 100 Marks | Duration: 3 Hours.
Reading Period: 15 minutes allotted (2:15 p.m. to 2:30 p.m.) for review only. Writing starts at 2:30 p.m.

SECTION I

Multiple Choice Questions (Q. 1 to 20)

[20 × 1 = 20 Marks]
Q. 01 Foundations of Political Science
[1 Mark]

Who among the following ancient Greek thinkers is regarded as the “Father of Political Science”?

(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Socrates
(D) Polybius
Verified Answer • Option (B) Aristotle

Ans. (B) Aristotle
Curricular Justification: Aristotle is regarded as the Father of Political Science because he applied empirical observation and comparative analysis to examine 158 Greek city-state constitutions in his seminal work, The Politics, declaring politics as the master science.

Q. 02 Concept of State
[1 Mark]

Which one of the following statements is not true about the Government?

(A) It is an essential element of the State.
(B) It is responsible for making and enforcing laws.
(C) It derives its operational authority from the Constitution.
(D) It is permanent in nature.
Verified Answer • Option (D)

Ans. (D) It is permanent in nature.
Justification: The State is permanent, whereas the Government is temporary. Governments change frequently through periodic democratic elections, resignations, or constitutional processes, while the State persists continuously.

Q. 03 Major Political Theories
[1 Mark]

The philosophical doctrine of “Theory of Class Struggle” is fundamentally associated with:

(A) Liberalism
(B) Marxism
(C) Gandhism
(D) Fascism
Verified Answer • Option (B) Marxism

Ans. (B) Marxism
Justification: In the Communist Manifesto (1848), Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels asserted that "the history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class struggles" between the exploiting bourgeoisie and the exploited proletariat.

Q. 04 Gandhian Political Thought
[1 Mark]

Who propounded the socio-economic concept of “Trusteeship” (न्यासधारिता)?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Jayaprakash Narayan
Verified Answer • Option (C) Mahatma Gandhi

Ans. (C) Mahatma Gandhi
Justification: Mahatma Gandhi propounded Trusteeship, an economic concept under which wealthy capitalists hold wealth not as absolute owners, but as moral trustees for the welfare of society and the impoverished masses.

Q. 05 Liberal Political Philosophy
[1 Mark]

Which of the following is a central tenet of classical liberalism?

(A) Individual freedom and limited role of the State
(B) Complete state ownership of all production means
(C) Establishment of a dictatorship of the proletariat
(D) Total abolition of private property rights
Verified Answer • Option (A)

Ans. (A) Individual freedom and limited role of the State
Justification: Classical liberalism (advocated by John Locke, Adam Smith, and J.S. Mill) emphasizes individual liberty, natural rights, free-market enterprise, and a "laissez-faire" (minimal/night-watchman) state.

Q. 06 Preamble to the Indian Constitution
[1 Mark]

Which words were inserted into the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?

(A) Socialist, Secular, and Integrity
(B) Sovereign, Democratic, and Republic
(C) Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity
(D) Justice, Dignity, and Unity
Verified Answer • Option (A)

Ans. (A) Socialist, Secular, and Integrity
Justification: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 amended the Preamble to alter the characterisation from "Sovereign Democratic Republic" to "Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic" and added "and integrity" after "unity of the Nation".

Q. 07 Fundamental Rights
[1 Mark]

Which Fundamental Right was removed from Part III of the Constitution by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978?

(A) Right to Education
(B) Right to Property
(C) Right to Freedom
(D) Right to Equality
Verified Answer • Option (B) Right to Property

Ans. (B) Right to Property
Justification: The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 deleted the Right to Property from Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, making it a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution.

Q. 08 Right to Freedom (Article 19)
[1 Mark]

How many democratic basic freedoms are currently guaranteed under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution?

(A) 7 freedoms
(B) 6 freedoms
(C) 5 freedoms
(D) 8 freedoms
Verified Answer • Option (B) 6 freedoms

Ans. (B) 6 freedoms
Justification: Article 19 originally had seven freedoms. After the deletion of the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property [19(1)(f)], six freedoms remain: speech and expression, peaceful assembly, forming associations/unions, free movement, residence anywhere in India, and practicing any profession/trade.

Q. 09 Directive Principles of State Policy
[1 Mark]

Which of the following provisions in Part IV of the Indian Constitution directly reflects Gandhian Principles?

(A) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(B) Organisation of Village Panchayats (Article 40)
(C) Uniform Civil Code for all citizens
(D) Separation of Judiciary from Executive
Verified Answer • Option (B)

Ans. (B) Organisation of Village Panchayats (Article 40)
Justification: Article 40 directs the State to organise village panchayats and endow them with powers of self-government, fulfilling Gandhi's vision of 'Gram Swaraj'.

Q. 10 Union Executive • President of India
[1 Mark]

The President of India is elected by an Electoral College consisting of:

(A) All members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only.
(B) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of State Legislative Assemblies (including Delhi & Puducherry).
(C) All members of Parliament and State Legislative Councils.
(D) All citizens of India through direct universal suffrage.
Verified Answer • Option (B)

Ans. (B) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
Justification: Under Article 54, nominated members of Parliament and members of State Legislative Councils (Vidhan Parishad) do not vote in the presidential election.

Q. 11 Parliament of India • Rajya Sabha
[1 Mark]

How many members are nominated by the President of India to the Rajya Sabha for their special contributions to literature, science, art, and social service?

(A) 2 members
(B) 10 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 14 members
Verified Answer • Option (C) 12 members

Ans. (C) 12 members
Justification: Under Article 80 of the Constitution, out of the maximum strength of 250 in the Rajya Sabha, 12 members are nominated by the President having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service.

Q. 12 Judiciary • Constitutional Writs
[1 Mark]

Which writ is issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to release a person who has been detained unlawfully?

(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo-Warranto
(D) Certiorari
Verified Answer • Option (A) Habeas Corpus

Ans. (A) Habeas Corpus
Justification: Habeas Corpus (literally "to have the body") is the bulwark of personal liberty. It directs the detaining authority to produce the arrested individual before the court to examine the legal validity of the detention.

Q. 13 Electoral System in India
[1 Mark]

Through which Constitutional Amendment Act was the voting age in India reduced from 21 years to 18 years?

(A) 44th Amendment
(B) 61st Amendment
(C) 73rd Amendment
(D) 86th Amendment
Verified Answer • Option (B) 61st Amendment

Ans. (B) 61st Amendment
Justification: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 (which came into force in 1989) amended Article 326 of the Constitution to lower the minimum voting age for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly elections from 21 to 18 years.

Q. 14 Indian Federal Structure
[1 Mark]

Which of the following subjects is included in the Concurrent List (समवर्ती सूची) of the Seventh Schedule?

(A) Defense
(B) Police
(C) Education
(D) Foreign Affairs
Verified Answer • Option (C) Education

Ans. (C) Education
Justification: Education was transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976. Defense and Foreign Affairs belong to the Union List, while Police belongs to the State List.

Q. 15 India's Foreign Policy • NAM
[1 Mark]

Where was the first official summit conference of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) held in 1961?

(A) Bandung
(B) Belgrade
(C) New Delhi
(D) Cairo
Verified Answer • Option (B) Belgrade

Ans. (B) Belgrade
Justification: The first summit conference of NAM was held in Belgrade (Yugoslavia) in September 1961 under the joint leadership of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, President Josip Broz Tito, and President Gamal Abdel Nasser.

Q. 16 Panchsheel & Sino-Indian Relations
[1 Mark]

In which year was the historic agreement enunciating the ‘Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence’ (Panchsheel) signed between India and China?

(A) 1950
(B) 1954
(C) 1962
(D) 1947
Verified Answer • Option (B) 1954

Ans. (B) 1954
Justification: The Panchsheel agreement was signed on 29 April 1954 between Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Chinese Premier Zhou Enlai regarding trade and intercourse between the Tibet region of China and India.

Q. 17 United Nations Security Council
[1 Mark]

Which of the following nations is not a permanent veto-holding member of the United Nations Security Council?

(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) China
(D) United Kingdom
Verified Answer • Option (B) Germany

Ans. (B) Germany
Justification: The five permanent members (P5) of the UN Security Council holding veto powers under the UN Charter are the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France, and China. Germany is a non-permanent candidate member (part of the G4 along with India, Japan, and Brazil).

Q. 18 Good Governance & Transparency
[1 Mark]

The Right to Information (RTI) Act was enacted by the Indian Parliament in which year?

(A) 2002
(B) 2005
(C) 2008
(D) 2010
Verified Answer • Option (B) 2005

Ans. (B) 2005
Justification: The historic Right to Information Act came into force on 12 October 2005, guaranteeing citizens legal access to government records and administrative transparency.

Q. 19 Public Administration • District Administration
[1 Mark]

Who serves as the administrative pivot and principal revenue authority of a District in India?

(A) District Collector / District Magistrate
(B) Superintendent of Police
(C) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(D) Chief Executive Officer of Zila Parishad
Verified Answer • Option (A)

Ans. (A) District Collector / District Magistrate
Justification: The District Collector (an IAS officer) heads the district administration, coordinating revenue collection, law and order (as District Magistrate), and rural development programmes.

Q. 20 Judicial Activism in India
[1 Mark]

Which former Chief Justice of India is universally celebrated as the pioneer of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?

(A) Justice H.J. Kania
(B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(C) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
(D) Justice M. Patanjali Sastri
Verified Answer • Option (B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

Ans. (B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
Justification: Justice P.N. Bhagwati (along with Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer) relaxed the traditional rule of locus standi in the late 1970s and 1980s, enabling any public-spirited citizen to approach the court on behalf of disadvantaged citizens.

SECTION II

Objective Questions (Q. 21 to 35)

[15 × 2 = 30 Marks]
Q. 21 [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:
(a) The State possesses the supreme power to command obedience, known as _____.
(b) While the state is permanent, the _____ is temporary and changes periodically.

(a) The State possesses the supreme power to command obedience, known as Sovereignty (संप्रभुता).
(b) While the state is permanent, the Government (सरकार) is temporary and changes periodically.

Q. 22 [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]

Answer the following questions in one or two words:
(a) What term is used by Karl Marx to describe a society devoid of classes and state machinery?
(b) Name the core principle of non-violent resistance developed by Mahatma Gandhi during the freedom struggle.

(a) Communist Society (or Communism / साम्यवाद).
(b) Satyagraha (सत्याग्रह — holding onto truth through non-violent resistance).

Q. 23 [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]
Passage: The Guardian of Constitutional Rights Fundamental Rights are meaningless unless there is an effective mechanism for their enforcement. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called Article 32 the very "Heart and Soul" of the Indian Constitution. Under Article 32, citizens have the guaranteed right to directly petition the Supreme Court if any of their Fundamental Rights are violated. The Supreme Court is empowered to issue prerogative writs including Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo-Warranto, and Certiorari for the enforcement of these rights.

(a) Which Article of the Indian Constitution was termed the "Heart and Soul" by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
(b) Under which Article can a citizen approach the High Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

(a) Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies).
(b) Article 226 (Writ jurisdiction of the High Courts).

Q. 24 [2 Marks]

Match Column-I with Column-II and write the correct sequence:

Column-I (Constitutional Article)Column-II (Subject Matter)
(a) Article 14(i) Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
(b) Article 17(ii) Abolition of Untouchability
(c) Article 21(iii) Equality before Law
(d) Article 51A(iv) Fundamental Duties
Matched Pairs & Correct Sequence:
(a) Article 14 → (iii) Equality before Law
(b) Article 17 → (ii) Abolition of Untouchability
(c) Article 21 → (i) Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
(d) Article 51A → (iv) Fundamental Duties
Correct Matching: a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–iv
Q. 25 [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]

Fill in the blanks with appropriate constitutional articles:
(a) National Emergency due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion is proclaimed under Article _____.
(b) President's Rule in a State due to breakdown of constitutional machinery is imposed under Article _____.

(a) National Emergency is proclaimed under Article 352.
(b) President's Rule in a State is imposed under Article 356.

Q. 26 [2 Marks]

Match Column-I (Political Thinker) with Column-II (Major Ideology):

Column-I (Thinker)Column-II (Ideology)
(a) John Locke(i) Sarvodaya & Non-Violence
(b) Karl Marx(ii) Master Science of Politics
(c) Mahatma Gandhi(iii) Scientific Socialism
(d) Aristotle(iv) Classical Liberalism
Matched Pairs & Correct Sequence:
(a) John Locke → (iv) Classical Liberalism
(b) Karl Marx → (iii) Scientific Socialism
(c) Mahatma Gandhi → (i) Sarvodaya & Non-Violence
(d) Aristotle → (ii) Master Science of Politics
Correct Matching: a–iv, b–iii, c–i, d–ii
Q. 27 [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]
Passage: Indian Federalism Article 1 of the Indian Constitution proclaims that "India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States." The framers deliberately preferred the phrase 'Union of States' over 'Federation of States' to emphasize that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among sovereign units, and no state possesses the right to secede from the Union. The Constitution provides a clear threefold distribution of legislative powers in the Seventh Schedule: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.

(a) How does Article 1 of the Constitution describe India?
(b) Do Indian States have the constitutional right to secede from the Indian Union?

(a) India is described as a "Union of States" (राज्यों का संघ).
(b) No, Indian States do not have the right to secede (the Indian Union is indestructible).

Q. 28 [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]

Fill in the blanks with appropriate constitutional details:
(a) The minimum required quorum to hold a sitting of either House of Parliament is _____ of the total membership.
(b) The maximum interval permitted between two consecutive sessions of Parliament is _____ months.

(a) The minimum quorum required is one-tenth (1/10th) of the total membership (Article 100).
(b) The maximum interval permitted between two sessions is six (6) months (Article 85).

Q. 29 [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]

Answer the following in one or two words:
(a) Write the name of the boundary line demarcating the border between India and China in the Eastern sector.
(b) Name the ceasefire line separating Indian and Pakistani administered territories in Jammu & Kashmir established after the 1972 Shimla Agreement.

(a) McMahon Line (मैकमोहन रेखा — agreed at the 1914 Simla Convention).
(b) Line of Control (LoC) (नियंत्रण रेखा).

Q. 30 [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]

Fill in the blanks with appropriate designations:
(a) Under the Indian Constitution, the de jure (constitutional head) of the Union Executive is the _____.
(b) The de facto (real executive head) of the Government of India is the _____.

(a) The de jure (constitutional head) is the President of India (भारत के राष्ट्रपति).
(b) The de facto (real executive head) is the Prime Minister of India (भारत के प्रधानमंत्री).

Q. 31 [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]

Answer the following questions in one or two words:
(a) Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of an independent Election Commission of India?
(b) Which electoral system is utilized for the election of members to the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Article 324.
(b) Proportional Representation by means of Single Transferable Vote (STV).

Q. 32 [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]

Fill in the blanks with appropriate constitutional details:
(a) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 accords constitutional status to _____ governance institutions.
(b) The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 accords constitutional status to _____ local bodies.

(a) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment accords constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (Rural Local Government).
(b) The 74th Constitutional Amendment accords constitutional status to Municipalities / Urban Local Bodies (Nagarpalikas).

Q. 33 [2 Marks]

Match Column-I (Historic Accord / Treaty) with Column-II (Year):

Column-I (Accord / Treaty)Column-II (Year)
(a) Tashkent Declaration(i) 1971
(b) Shimla Agreement(ii) 1960
(c) Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace and Friendship(iii) 1966
(d) Indus Waters Treaty(iv) 1972
Matched Pairs & Correct Sequence:
(a) Tashkent Declaration → (iii) 1966 (Lal Bahadur Shastri & Ayub Khan)
(b) Shimla Agreement → (iv) 1972 (Indira Gandhi & Z.A. Bhutto)
(c) Indo-Soviet Treaty → (i) 1971 (20-year security pact)
(d) Indus Waters Treaty → (ii) 1960 (brokered by the World Bank)
Correct Matching: a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
Q. 34 [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]

Answer the following questions in one or two words:
(a) Who is the Ex-Officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(b) Who presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament under Article 108?

(a) The Vice-President of India (Article 64).
(b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (Article 118[4]).

Q. 35 [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]

Fill in the blanks with appropriate details:
(a) A judge of the Supreme Court of India holds office until attaining the age of _____ years.
(b) A judge of a High Court holds office until attaining the age of _____ years.

(a) A Supreme Court judge serves until attaining the age of 65 years (Article 124[2]).
(b) A High Court judge serves until attaining the age of 62 years (Article 217[1]).

SECTION III

Very Short Answer Questions (Q. 36 to 46)

[11 × 2 = 22 Marks • 30–50 words]
Q. 36 [2 Marks]

Explain two main differences between State and Society.

Ans. Two Differences between State and Society:
  1. Scope and Origin: Society is prior to the State and has a much broader scope encompassing all social, economic, cultural, and religious relationships. The State is a political association deliberately organized to maintain law and order.
  2. Coercive Power & Territory: The State possesses sovereign coercive power to enforce laws and punish disobedience, and requires a strictly defined territory. Society has no coercive police power; it functions through voluntary customs, moral codes, and social norms without fixed territorial boundaries.
Q. 37 [2 Marks]

Describe any two fundamental characteristics of Sovereignty.

Ans. Characteristics of Sovereignty:
  1. Absoluteness: Sovereignty is supreme and legally unlimited. There is no authority higher than the sovereign State within its borders, nor is it legally subordinate to any outside power.
  2. Indivisibility and Permanence: Sovereignty cannot be divided among different bodies within the State; divided sovereignty is a contradiction in terms. Moreover, it lasts as long as the State itself survives, unaffected by changes of government.
Q. 38 [2 Marks]

Differentiate between the Political Executive and the Permanent Executive in India.

Ans. Differences between Political and Permanent Executive:
  1. Political Executive: Consists of elected representatives such as the Prime Minister, Chief Ministers, and Council of Ministers. They hold office for a fixed term (generally 5 years) dependent on legislative majority, formulate broad policies, and are politically accountable.
  2. Permanent Executive (Civil Services): Consists of politically neutral, career bureaucrats recruited through competitive examinations (such as UPSC). They serve continuously until retirement age, providing administrative expertise and executing policies irrespective of which party comes to power.
Q. 39 [2 Marks]

State any two differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.

Ans. Two Distinctions:
  1. Justiciability: Fundamental Rights (Part III) are legally justiciable and enforceable by courts under Articles 32 and 226. Directive Principles (Part IV) are non-justiciable (Article 37) and cannot be enforced by judicial mandamus against the State.
  2. Nature and Objective: Fundamental Rights are largely negative injunctions preventing the State from encroaching upon individual civil and political liberties. Directive Principles are positive socioeconomic guidelines aimed at establishing a welfare state.
Q. 40 [2 Marks]

What is meant by Universal Adult Franchise? State its significance.

Ans. Universal Adult Franchise:

Universal Adult Franchise means that every citizen of India who has attained the age of 18 years has the constitutional right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, without any discrimination based on caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, or wealth (Article 326).
Significance: It establishes political equality, promotes inclusive popular sovereignty, and ensures democratic legitimacy of elected governments.

Q. 41 [2 Marks]

Explain any two primary functions of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).

Ans. Two Functions of UPSC (Article 320):
  1. Conduct of Examinations: Conducting nationwide competitive examinations for recruitment to the All-India Services (IAS, IPS, IFS) and Central Civil Services (Group A and Group B).
  2. Advisory Role: Advising the Government on matters relating to recruitment methods, promotions, transfers, and disciplinary actions concerning civil servants.
Q. 42 [2 Marks]

State two main causes for the emergence of regionalism in Indian politics.

Ans. Two Causes of Regionalism:
  1. Regional Economic Disparities: Uneven infrastructural and economic development across states generates deep feelings of economic neglect and grievance among less-developed populations.
  2. Linguistic and Cultural Identities: Intense attachment to regional languages, customs, and sub-national ethnic identities, often politicized by regional political parties demanding greater autonomy or statehood.
Q. 43 [2 Marks]

State two core objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM).

Ans. Two Objectives of NAM:
  1. Preservation of Strategic Autonomy: Remaining non-aligned with rival Cold War military alliances (NATO / Warsaw Pact) to decide foreign policy issues independently on their merits.
  2. Opposition to Colonialism & Apartheid: Actively championing decolonization, opposing racial discrimination (apartheid), and advocating international disarmament and global peace.
Q. 44 [2 Marks]

Why is the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 often described as a “Mini-Constitution”?

Ans. The "Mini-Constitution":

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 is termed a "Mini-Constitution" because it brought extensive and comprehensive changes to almost every part of the Indian Constitution, including amending the Preamble, adding Part IV-A (Fundamental Duties), giving primacy to Directive Principles over certain Fundamental Rights, establishing administrative tribunals (Part XIV-A), and shifting key subjects like education to the Concurrent List.

Q. 45 [2 Marks]

Describe any two discretionary powers exercised by the Governor of an Indian State.

Ans. Discretionary Powers of the Governor (Article 163):
  1. Appointment of Chief Minister in a Hung Assembly: When no single political party or coalition secures a clear majority, the Governor exercises personal discretion to invite the leader most likely to prove majority support on the floor.
  2. Reservation of Bills & Reporting on Constitutional Machinery: Reserving certain state bills for the consideration and assent of the President (Article 200), and sending a confidential report to the President recommending President’s Rule under Article 356.
Q. 46 [2 Marks]

What is a Money Bill? How does the Lok Sabha enjoy exclusive supremacy over Money Bills?

Ans. Money Bill (Article 110) & Lok Sabha Supremacy:

A Money Bill deals strictly with financial matters such as imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of taxes, or borrowing of money by the Union Government.
Supremacy: Under Article 109, a Money Bill can only originate in the Lok Sabha on the prior recommendation of the President. The Rajya Sabha has no power to reject or amend it; it can only suggest recommendations and must return the bill within 14 days, failing which the bill is deemed passed.

SECTION IV

Short Answer Questions (Q. 47 to 52)

[6 × 3 = 18 Marks • 50–80 words]
Q. 47 [3 Marks]

Examine the three fundamental principles of Karl Marx’s scientific socialism.

Ans. Three Principles of Marxism:
  1. Dialectical & Historical Materialism: Marx argued that economic and material conditions (the infrastructure/economic base) determine the social, political, and legal institutions (the superstructure). All historical transformations are driven by changing material production forces.
  2. Theory of Surplus Value: Workers produce far more value during labor than they receive as wages. The surplus value is expropriated by the capitalist owners as unearned profit, constituting exploitation.
  3. Class Struggle and Revolution: Society is polarized into two antagonistic classes: the bourgeoisie (exploiters) and the proletariat (exploited). This inherent contradiction leads to a socialist revolution, establishing the dictatorship of the proletariat and eventually a classless, stateless communist society.
OR (Alternative Option Fully Solved)

Explain John Locke’s theory of Natural Rights and its influence on classical liberalism.

Ans. John Locke’s Natural Rights Theory:
  1. Inalienable Rights of Life, Liberty, and Property: John Locke posited that individuals possess innate, pre-political natural rights in the State of Nature—namely, the Right to Life, the Right to Liberty, and the Right to Property (Estate).
  2. Government as a Fiduciary Trust: The social contract creates government solely to safeguard these natural rights. Political authority is a trust; if the government infringes on these rights, citizens have the moral right to alter or overthrow it.
  3. Foundation of Limited Constitutional Government: Locke's formulation laid the philosophical cornerstone for modern constitutionalism, rule of law, and bill of rights across western democratic constitutions.
Q. 48 [3 Marks]

Analyse the composition and voting procedure of the Electoral College that elects the President of India.

Ans. Presidential Electoral College & Method:
  1. Composition (Article 54): Consists exclusively of elected members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and elected members of State Legislative Assemblies (including the National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry).
  2. Value of Votes: To secure uniformity between different states and parity between the States and the Union, vote values are calculated mathematically: an MLA's vote reflects the state's population divided by elected MLA seats, while an MP's vote equals total MLA vote values divided by total elected MPs.
  3. Method of Election (Article 55): The election is conducted via secret ballot in accordance with the system of Proportional Representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote (STV), requiring the winning candidate to achieve a clear electoral quota.
Q. 49 [3 Marks]

Explain the concept of “Judicial Review” and evaluate its significance in preserving constitutional supremacy.

Ans. Concept and Significance of Judicial Review:
  1. Meaning: Judicial Review is the constitutional power of the Supreme Court (Article 32 & 136) and High Courts (Article 226) to examine the constitutional validity of legislative enactments and executive orders.
  2. Doctrine of Ultra Vires: If any law or administrative order violates any provision of the Constitution or infringes Fundamental Rights, the judiciary declares it null, void, and ultra vires (Article 13).
  3. Preserving Basic Structure: As laid down in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), judicial review serves as the essential bulwark protecting the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution and maintaining the federal balance between the Union and the States.
Q. 50 [3 Marks]

Discuss three major challenges confronting the secular fabric of Indian democracy.

Ans. Three Challenges to Secularism in India:
  1. Communalism and Identity Politics: The mobilization of voters on narrow religious lines and the exploitation of sectarian sentiments for electoral vote-banks erode communal harmony and tolerance.
  2. Rise of Religious Fundamentalism & Intolerance: Extremist rhetoric, hate speech, and incidents of communal riots create mutual distrust and insecurity among minority communities.
  3. Politicization of Religious Issues: The intrusion of religious disputes into political platforms and disputes over cultural symbols distract from substantive socioeconomic developmental priorities.
Q. 51 [3 Marks]

Describe the composition, voting procedure, and primary functions of the UN Security Council.

Ans. United Nations Security Council (UNSC):
  1. Composition: Total 15 members: 5 Permanent members (P5: USA, Russia, UK, France, China) possessing individual veto powers, and 10 non-permanent members elected by the General Assembly for a 2-year term representing geographic regions.
  2. Voting Procedure: Procedural matters require 9 affirmative votes. Substantive matters require 9 affirmative votes, including the concurring votes of all five permanent members. A single negative vote by any P5 member constitutes a veto.
  3. Primary Functions: Charged with the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security under the UN Charter, authorizing peacekeeping missions, imposing binding diplomatic/economic sanctions, and authorizing collective military action under Chapter VII.
OR (Alternative Option Fully Solved)

Explain the five principles of Panchsheel and evaluate their relevance in contemporary international relations.

Ans. Panchsheel Principles & Contemporary Relevance:
  1. The Five Principles: (i) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty; (ii) Mutual non-aggression; (iii) Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs; (iv) Equality and mutual benefit; and (v) Peaceful coexistence.
  2. Global Moral Framework: Adopted at the Bandung Conference (1955) and embedded in the UN General Assembly declarations, Panchsheel provided developing nations an ethical paradigm free from superpower hegemony.
  3. Contemporary Relevance: In today’s multipolar world marred by geopolitical tensions, trade wars, and border disputes, these principles remain vital for multilateral diplomacy, global dispute resolution, and peaceful international coexistence.
Q. 52 [3 Marks]

Explain the major features of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 concerning Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Ans. Key Provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment:
  1. Three-Tier Structure & Gram Sabha: Mandated a standardized three-tier system in all states with populations over 20 lakhs: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (intermediate/block level), and Zila Parishad (district level), with the Gram Sabha as the foundation of direct democracy.
  2. Mandatory Women Reservation: Article 243D mandates that not less than one-third (33%) of the total seats and chairperson positions at all levels must be reserved for women (expanded to 50% in many states).
  3. Fixed Tenure & Independent Commissions: Provides a mandatory 5-year tenure with fresh elections conducted within 6 months of dissolution, oversaw by an independent State Election Commission, alongside a State Finance Commission to ensure financial devolution.
SECTION V

Long Answer Questions (Q. 53 to 54)

[2 × 5 = 10 Marks • 80–120+ words / Detailed Examination]
Q. 53 (Essay) [5 Marks]

“The Indian Constitution is federal in form, but unitary in spirit.” Critically examine this statement with suitable constitutional provisions.

Comprehensive Constitutional Analysis:

Prof. K.C. Wheare described the Indian Constitution as a ‘Quasi-Federal’ system. While it exhibits all the standard structural characteristics of a federation, it is embedded with pronounced unitary and centralizing features designed to preserve national unity and sovereignty.

A. Federal Features (Federal in Form):
  • Dual Polity: The Constitution establishes a dual government structure consisting of the Union Government at the Centre and State Governments in the regional units.
  • Written & Rigid Constitution: The Constitution is written, supreme, and its federal provisions require special two-thirds parliamentary majority plus ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures (Article 368).
  • Division of Powers: Clear demarcation of legislative domains in the Seventh Schedule into Union List (100 subjects), State List (61 subjects), and Concurrent List (52 subjects).
  • Independent Judiciary: The Supreme Court acts as the impartial arbiter resolving inter-governmental disputes under Article 131.
B. Unitary Features (Unitary in Spirit):
  • Single Citizenship & Single Constitution: Unlike the USA, India maintains a single unified citizenship and one integrated Constitution for both the Centre and the States.
  • Emergency Provisions (Part XVIII): During National Emergency (Article 352) or breakdown of state machinery (Article 356), the federal structure effortlessly transforms into a completely unitary system without formal constitutional amendment.
  • Appointment of Governor: The Governor is appointed by the President and acts as an agent of the Central Government, holding veto powers over state legislation.
  • All-India Services & Integrated Judiciary: The IAS and IPS are centrally recruited and controlled, yet administer state departments. The judiciary is a unified single hierarchy headed by the Supreme Court.
  • Residuary Powers: Unlike traditional federations where residuary subjects belong to the states, Article 248 vests residuary powers in the Union Parliament.

Conclusion: In the words of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Constitution is designed to be both unitary and federal according to the requirements of time and circumstances. It combines federal autonomy with central strength to ensure stability.

OR (Alternative Choice Fully Solved)

Examine the scheme of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under the Indian Constitution. Why is Article 32 described as the most vital right?

Comprehensive Scholastic Examination of Fundamental Rights:

Part III of the Indian Constitution (Articles 12 to 35) is termed the Magna Carta of India. It guarantees six comprehensive categories of Fundamental Rights essential for human dignity, personal liberty, and democratic governance:

  1. Right to Equality (Articles 14–18): Guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws (Art. 14); prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth (Art. 15); equality of opportunity in public employment (Art. 16); abolition of untouchability (Art. 17); and abolition of titles (Art. 18).
  2. Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22): Protects six basic civil liberties (Art. 19); protection against arbitrary conviction (Art. 20); right to life and personal liberty, including education and privacy (Art. 21 & 21A); and protection against arbitrary arrest and detention (Art. 22).
  3. Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24): Prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labor (Art. 23) and bans employment of children in hazardous industries (Art. 24).
  4. Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25–28): Guarantees freedom of conscience, free profession, practice, and propagation of religion (Art. 25); management of religious affairs (Art. 26); and freedom from religious taxation (Art. 27).
  5. Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29–30): Protects minorities' language, script, and culture (Art. 29) and grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions (Art. 30).
  6. Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32): Empowers individuals to move the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights through prerogative writs.
Why Article 32 is the Most Vital:

A declaration of rights is a hollow parchment without a concrete enforcement remedy. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously remarked in the Constituent Assembly: "If I was asked to name any particular Article in this Constitution as the most important... I could not refer to any other Article except this one. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it." Article 32 cannot be suspended even during peacetime, ensuring that Fundamental Rights remain real and effective.

Q. 54 (Optional Module) [5 Marks]
OPTIONAL MODULE — 7A

World Order and the United Nations

Critically assess the relevance of the United Nations in the 21st century. Why is India staking a legitimate claim for a permanent seat in the UN Security Council?

Complete Examination of UN Relevance and India's UNSC Claim:

Despite structural limitations, the United Nations remains the premier multilateral forum for global dialogue, international law, climate coordination, and conflict de-escalation. Dag Hammarskjöld famously noted: "The UN was not created in order to bring us to heaven, but in order to save us from hell."

1. Relevance in the Contemporary Era:
  • Humanitarian & Development Work: Through specialized agencies (WHO, UNESCO, UNICEF, UNHCR), the UN eradicates epidemics, manages refugee crises, and drives the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs 2030).
  • Peacekeeping Operations: Deploys thousands of "Blue Helmets" to buffer conflicts, verify ceasefires, and stabilize post-war rebuilding across the globe.
  • Global Norm Building: Sets international consensus on existential threats like climate change (UNFCCC/Paris Agreement) and nuclear non-proliferation.
2. India's Legitimate Claim for Permanent UNSC Membership:
  • Demographic Reality: India is the most populous country in the world, home to over 1.4 billion people (over one-sixth of humanity). A Council excluding India lacks global representativeness.
  • World's Largest Democracy: India boasts unbroken constitutional democratic continuity, pluralism, and institutional stability.
  • Economic Powerhouse: India is the world's 5th largest economy (and fastest-growing major economy) with critical global trade and technological footprint.
  • Contribution to UN Peacekeeping: India has historically been among the largest cumulative contributors of troops, police personnel, and medical units to UN Peacekeeping missions worldwide.
  • Voice of the Global South: India acts as a trusted, constructive bridge representing developing nations in international fora.

Conclusion: The present 1945 post-WWII security architecture no longer reflects 21st-century geopolitical realities. Granting India permanent membership is vital to restore the credibility, legitimacy, and efficacy of the UNSC.

OR (Alternative Optional Module Fully Solved)
OPTIONAL MODULE — 7B

Administrative System in India

Examine the pivotal role and functions of the Cabinet Secretariat and the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) in the coordination and policy formulation of the Government of India.

Comprehensive Administrative Analysis:

In India’s parliamentary executive, smooth administrative functioning depends upon inter-ministerial coordination and executive support provided by the Cabinet Secretariat and the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO).

1. The Cabinet Secretariat:

Headed by the Cabinet Secretary (the senior-most civil servant in India and ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board):

  • Secretariat to the Union Cabinet: Prepares the agenda for Cabinet meetings, circulates background policy papers, and records minutes and decisions under direct authority of the Prime Minister.
  • Inter-Ministerial Coordination: Resolves jurisdictional overlaps, mediates policy friction between various ministries, and tracks implementation of decisions through Committee of Secretaries (CoS).
  • Administration of Transaction of Business Rules: Ensures that all ministries adhere to the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules and (Transaction of Business) Rules.
2. The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO):

Headed by the Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister, providing direct institutional, political, and strategic staff assistance to the Chief Executive:

  • Policy Oversight & Strategic Advisory: Evaluates flagship national programs, economic policies, national security priorities, and foreign affairs.
  • Nodal Hub of Executive Power: Monitors priority projects (via PRAGATI platform), handles public grievances, and facilitates the Prime Minister's institutional responsibilities over the Atomic Energy and Space departments.
  • Point of Contact: Acts as the primary liaison between the Prime Minister, central ministers, State Governors/Chief Ministers, and foreign heads of state.

Conclusion: While the Cabinet Secretariat ensures systematic, institutionalized inter-ministerial coordination and administrative continuity, the PMO acts as the dynamic nerve center directing the Prime Minister’s policy priorities.